First of all, only this goes.
I think that Japanese government is necessary to apologize to given damage by Japan to a lot of countries during hostilities in the past.
60 years passed from the defeat of Japan in World War II.
Meanwhile, Japan has paid compensation to many country that invaded during the war.
However, I cannot consent ;Republic of Korea in Korean peninsula (which was part of Japan from before the war) is included in these countries.
Japan is paying a claim to Korea in 1965.
A successive Prime Minister and the emperor are apologizing to South Korea in 1982, 1983, 1984, 1990, 1992, 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996, 2001.
The South Korea government and the people have still demanded the apology and compensation from Japanese Government.
Japanese Government signed the Portsmouth agreement by the mediation of the United States in 1905.
Japan annexed Korea by this agreement.
Important point;Japan did not annex a Korean peninsula by military power, the Korean government (that had been made the target of the policy of
going south of Russia at that time) hoped to be annexed.
Afterwards, in a Korean peninsula that was Japan, Japanese Government treated Korean people who was the Japanese people by Japanese law.
At that time, Korean people who was the Japanese people had eligibility and was getting a public
appointment by that token.
During the war, a lot of Korean people's volunteer was joining the war as a Japanese.
They, Koreans, are not the war victims but ,in a word, assailant.
If you assume the war to be a crime, Korea is an accomplice in Japan.
Why does such a country demand the apology and compensation from Japan?
I do not understand.
However, Japanese Government has paid to the South Korea government 300 million dollars gratuitous based on "Agreement Between Japan and
the Republic of Korea Concerning the Settlement of Problems in Regard to Property and Claims and Economic Cooperation" in 1965.
(http://wikisource.org/wiki/Agreement_Between_Japan_and_the_Republic_of_Korea_Concerning_the_Settlement_of_Problems_in_Regard_to_Property_
and_Claims_and_Economic_Cooperation)
200 million dollars were paid additionally for a fee. 300 million dollars are paid in a private loan.
Total is 800 million dollars.
Let's convert it into present value.
(US$1.00=JP\360 in 1965) US$800,000,000 multiplied by JP\360 is JP\288,000,000,000
(Price in 1965 is about 1/10 of 2005) JP\288,000,000,000 multiplied by 10 is JP\2,880,000,000,000
(US$1.00=JP\107 in 2005) JP\2,880,000,000,000 divided by JP\107 is about US$27,000,000,000
Number of warranters that South Korea government calculated is 900,000 of people
US$27,000,000,000 divided by 900,000 is US$30,000,000/person
Is this amount of money cheap?
Germany did enough amends to the Jew.
The compensation of Germany to the forced laborer is about US$13,000 to US$18,000 in present value.
It is understood that compensation to South Korea was a very high level even if it sees objectively.
Amount of 800 million dollars is 2.3 times a national budget of South Korea at that time.
By the way, all regions of the Korean peninsula (both North Korea and South Korea) are objects in this amount of compensation.
It is not being paid to North Korea by South Korea at all.
In addition, Japan is abandoning the property, left in South Korea at prewar days.
Even if the example of India and Britain is seen, this is an act of passing enough as compensation after the war.
The amount of the property was 5.3 billion dollars surprisingly. (The property for military affairs is excluded. )
In a word, Japan is compensating South Korea for enormous amount of 6.1 billion dollars in total.
And, the following words are recorded in "Agreement Between Japan and the Republic of Korea Concerning the Settlement of Problems in
Regard to Property and Claims and Economic Cooperation".
Article II1 The High Contracting Parties confirm that the problems concerning property,
rights, and interests of the two High Contracting Parties and their peoples
(including juridical persons) and the claims between the High Contracting Parties
and between their peoples, including those stipulated in Article IV(a) of the Peace Treaty
with Japan signed at the city of San Francisco on September 8, 1951, have been settled
completely and finally.However, South Korea used it without paying the settlement money from Japan to an individual person for compensation after the conclusion of
a treaty for national development.
Economic of South Korea development was performed with this settlement money.
Surprisingly, the South Korea government is not informing the people of this agreement.
The South Korean think that Japan is not yet accomplishing the liability.
Therefore, they get indignant, and have taken proceedings for Japanese Government.
It is a cause from which this made the ditch between Japan and South Korea.
There are large crimes in the South Korea government from the above-mentioned.
Japan.
2. The South Korea government is teaching the people the history of fabrication "Korea fought against Japan and won". In Japan, there is no
historical fact fighting against Korea.
3. Compensation was claimed to Japan though Korea was a part of Japan.
4. Japan paid the amount of North Korea to the South Korea government together. It is not distributed to North Korea.
5. The South Korea government tells a lie that compensation is not done from Japan, and is fueling people's anti-Japanese sentiments.
6. The South Korea government is still demanding satisfaction from Japan.
People all over the world should learn these.
2GET
At times the South Korean government seems more psycho then its northern neighbors, but I really don't know who to believe on the Korea/Japan issues. Both sides seem to supplement their opinions with a healthy dose of racism.
nida?
ニダ ━━━━━━<｀∀´>━━━━━━ !!
If Germany isn't going to pay reparations to the families of millions of Jews who were annihilated during WWII, then Japan shouldn't have to pay reparations to the families of Korean or Chinese people who were annihilated during and before WWII either.
However, In the U.S. the federal government has paid reparations to Native Americans who were deliberately mistreated et similia during the 19th and 20th centuries. Since they have set a precedent they must continue to make such payments as new cases arise.
See, the point here is that if there is no precedent and governments refuse to set one, then others shouldn't be held to a different standard. However if there is precedent, then it should be followed.
Precedents aren't applicable to international law. Precedents are unique to judicial institutions with an anglo-saxon idea of law. International law is only determined by bilateral treaties.
>>6's examples are therefore faulty.
Germany isn't going to pay reparations to the families of millions of Jews because: 1. there are too many of them, if the reparations weren't limited to an insultingly small amount per-person, it'd put a huge dent in the economy, 2. tracing them is too difficult, 3. there aren't enough jews left in Germany to have sufficient political influence, plus also there's the concept of 'regime' - although it was Germans who were responsible, it was not a regime that was at all related to the current regime - in a sense it'd be paying for someone else's actions.
The US can pay reparations to the Native Americans because the acts were committed by the same regime and governmental construct.
The concept of precedents is often misunderstood - precedents can be set and overturned, a court may well refer to a previous decision as an example but if the judge considers the previous decision wrong or inadvisable, or not sufficiently similar to the existing situation then the judge may pass down any judgement he feels justified - precedent is used to explain actions and as guidance, but there's no legal requirement to follow it.
this thread is stupid